Thursday, 10 September 2026

CA Mahalingam Suresh Kumar (Liquidator) vs. Union Bank of India and Anr.. - The Legislature, in its wisdom, has provided a structured mechanism for determining the Liquidator’s remuneration with the object of ensuring that the liquidation process is completed in a time-bound manner while safeguarding the interests of all stakeholders at every stage. Therefore, any claim for additional remuneration beyond the fee already fixed under Regulation 4 is contrary to the statutory scheme and cannot be sustained.

  NCLT Kochi (2026.07.31) in CA Mahalingam Suresh Kumar (Liquidator) vs. Union Bank of India and Anr.. [(2026) ibclaw.in 2859 NCLT, IA(IBC)/248/KOB/2025 in IBA/240/CB/2019] held that; 

  • The Legislature, in its wisdom, has provided a structured mechanism for determining the Liquidator’s remuneration with the object of ensuring that the liquidation process is completed in a time-bound manner while safeguarding the interests of all stakeholders at every stage. Therefore, any claim for additional remuneration beyond the fee already fixed under Regulation 4 is contrary to the statutory scheme and cannot be sustained.

  • The exclusion of any period for the purpose of computation of the time limit cannot invariably result in the alteration of remuneration unless the relevant governing provisions expressly contemplate such a consequence. In fact, if such a contention is accepted, the entire scheme and objective behind it would collapse.

  • The scheme, as designed, is sufficient to prompt Resolution Professionals/Liquidators to participate in the proceedings and to take diligent steps for the expeditious and timely adjudication of matters by pursuing their interests before the competent courts. If we allow the exclusion of such periods, practically, the Resolution Professionals/Liquidators would cease to show interest in such litigations.

  • The statutory framework is designed to encourage diligence and expedition on the part of the Liquidator while safeguarding the liquidation estate for the benefit of stakeholders. Therefore, on that ground also, the contentions of the Applicant are not acceptable.

  • Though it is correct that no person can be prejudiced by the act of the Court, such a principle certainly cannot be stretched to create a substantive monetary entitlement or be used to grant additional remuneration to the Applicant against the statutory scheme under the IBC. Further, if we allow the relief as claimed, it would unnecessarily burden the liquidation estate and ultimately impact the distributable assets available to the stakeholders, and such interference would be against the settled statutory scheme.


Excerpts of the Order

# 1. The present application has been filed by the applicant under Section 60(5) of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, read with Rule 11 of the NCLT Rules, 2016, seeking the following reliefs:-

  • a. To fix the fee payable to the Liquidator for the exceptional period of prolonged litigation and stay [35.5 months], and this payment be made on par with the minimum statutory fees payable to the Resolution Professional;

  • b. To pass Such other orders or further orders which may deemed to be fit and proper in the interest of justice.


Brief facts of the case:

# 2. The present Application has been filed by the Liquidator seeking remuneration for duties performed during the 35.5-month stay period in the liquidation process. CIRP was initiated by Union Bank of India under Section 7 of the IBC and admitted by the NCLT, Chennai Bench on 20.03.2019. Mr. Shanmugam Rajendran was appointed as IRP and later confirmed as RP. Liquidation was ordered on 16.12.2019, and the Applicant was appointed as Liquidator on 07.02.2020.


# 3. It is submitted that an e-auction notice dated 29.02.2020 for the sale of the Corporate Debtor as a going concern could not proceed due to the Covid-19 lockdown. Subsequently, this Adjudicating Authority permitted the use of the hospital premises for COVID-19 treatment and quarantine facilities. Thereafter, multiple litigations, writ petitions, appeals, and SLPs before the Hon’ble High Court of Kerala, Hon’ble NCLAT, and Hon’ble Supreme Court resulted in repeated stay orders and delay of the liquidation process. The extended liquidation period expired on 12.09.2025.


# 4. Further, it is submitted that despite continuous litigation and interruption of e-auctions, the Applicant continued to perform duties under the Code, including maintenance and revival of the only multispecialty hospital in Erattupetta during Covid-19, resulting in value maximisation and successful sale of all assets except the Doctor’s Quarters. In the 6th e-auction, EMD was received but refunded due to stay orders. The SCC later approved the 12th e-auction of the Doctor’s Quarters at a reserve price of Rs. 3,41,00,000/-.


# 5. The Applicant submitted that more than 50 man-months were spent handling litigations, protecting assets, and operating the hospital during the stay period, without remuneration. The request for payment of minimum RP fees for the stay period was placed before the SCC in the 11th and 16th meetings, where Union Bank of India and MEUCB advised approaching this Adjudicating Authority. Relying on Regulation 4(2)(a) of the IBBI Liquidation Regulations and orders of the NCLT Mumbai and Chandigarh Benches, the Applicant seeks payment of Liquidator’s fees for the 35.5-month stay period on par with RP fees, as the delays were caused entirely by litigations and stay orders beyond the Applicant’s control.


Reply of Respondent No. 1:-

# 6. It is submitted that the Applicant/Liquidator has received all fees legally due and payable under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, and the applicable Regulations. The manner and method of payment of Liquidator’s fees are governed by Regulation 4 of the IBBI (Liquidation Process) Regulations, 2016.


# 7. It is submitted that under Regulation 4 of the IBBI (Liquidation Process) Regulations, 2016, the Liquidator’s fee is payable only as per the agreed mode, which in this case was a percentage of assets realized and distributed. The same has already been paid in full. The Applicant had initially sought a fee under Regulation 4 vide communication dated 23.12.2019 to Union Bank of India, but later agreed to a revised fee structure. Assets worth Rs. 39.72 crores were realised, and the liquidator’s fee of Rs. 55,21,497/- has already been paid, in addition to liquidation costs borne by stakeholders. Hence, the claim for additional fee is not maintainable.


# 8. It is further submitted that the fee was not fixed on a monthly basis, but only on realisation; therefore, the delay or stay period cannot justify any additional remuneration. In Union Bank of India vs. Mindlogicx Infratec Ltd., the NCLT held that no fees are payable for the period of stay. Further, the respondent quotes the decision of the Hon’ble NCLAT in Rajputana Constructions Pvt. Ltd. v. Rajasthan Land Holdings Ltd. and Ors. The decisions relied upon by the Applicant are not applicable to the present facts. It is submitted that the Liquidator’s claim of value enhancement during COVID-19 is unsubstantiated. The inclusion of guarantor assets for value maximisation was possible due to the cooperation of Union Bank of India, and the Liquidator has already been compensated for the same. The Liquidator cannot claim additional fees based on asset maximisation or stay period, as he has already been fully paid in accordance with the Code and Regulations.


Reply of Respondent No. 2:-

# 9. It is submitted by Respondent No. 2 that the present Application filed by the Liquidator is misconceived and not maintainable. Though the Liquidator was appointed in 2020 and an e-auction notice was issued, the sale proceedings were suspended due to COVID-19. Thereafter, this Adjudicating Authority permitted the hospital premises to be used for COVID treatment and quarantine facilities, and subsequently, the matter was stayed by the Hon’ble High Court of Kerala and later by the Hon’ble Supreme Court. Hence, no liquidation activity was carried out during the COVID period and the period of stay. Therefore, claiming the liquidator’s fee for such period is unreasonable and illegal.


# 10. Further, IA(IBC)/1/KOB/2025 has already been filed seeking adjudication of liquidation expenses and the liquidator’s fee. Annexure A3 shows that the Liquidator calculated the sale value contrary to the original sale price and split the value under different heads for unjust enrichment. The Liquidator claimed Rs. 4,25,00,000/- as liquidation expenses and Rs. 49,40,731/- separately as liquidator’s fee without proper explanation or approval. As per Regulation 2(1)(ea) of the IBBI (Liquidation Process) Regulations, 2016, liquidation cost includes the liquidator’s fee. Hence, charging both separately is contrary to the law and amounts to unjust enrichment at the expense of the creditors.


Findings:-

# 11. We have heard the matter and perused the material available on record. This is an application filed by the liquidator under Section 60(5) read with Rule 11 of NCLT Rules, 2016, for additional remuneration and the prayer so made in IA is reproduced as under at the cost of repetition:

  • a. To fix the fee payable to the Liquidator for the exceptional period of prolonged litigation and stay [35.5 months], and this payment be made on par with the minimum statutory fees payable to the Resolution Professional;

  • b. To pass Such other orders or further orders which may deemed to be fit and proper in the interest of justice.


# 12. But during the course of the arguments, the Applicant, in a conscious manner, tried to increase and extend its prayer by seeking an alternate relief to exclude the period of 35.5 months from various time periods from 15.03.2020 to 10.06.2024 while computing the remuneration from the Liquidation Commencement Date. The matter requires consideration, as the Applicant has raised serious concerns to invoke the sympathy of this Adjudicating Authority on the equity side in the absence of any specific statutory provision.


# 13. In this matter, the CIRP against the Corporate Debtor was initiated on 20.03.2019, and subsequently, this Adjudicating Authority rejected the resolution plan and passed a liquidation order on 16.12.2019. The Applicant was appointed as the Liquidator on 07.02.2020 upon confirmation by the IBBI. The Liquidator issued a public announcement in Form B on 12.02.2020 and filed the Asset Memorandum and Preliminary Report on 24.02.2020. The Liquidator initiated the sale process and issued an e-auction notice on 29.02.2020 for the sale of the Corporate Debtor as a going concern. This process was interrupted due to the nationwide COVID-19 lockdown, and the Corporate Debtor’s hospital was taken over by the District Administration. The Applicant referred to various litigations filed before the Hon’ble High Court of Kerala, the Hon’ble NCLAT, and the Hon’ble Supreme Court, and it is also stated that the Hon’ble Supreme Court, vide order dated 09.12.2022, stayed the auction proceedings; vide order dated 07.08.2023, set aside the orders of the Hon’ble NCLAT; and ultimately, vide order dated 09.07.2024, the Hon’ble NCLAT dismissed the Company Appeal, immediately thereafter, the Liquidator proceeded with the sale process.


# 14. The Liquidator filed a caveat before the Hon’ble Supreme Court on 11.07.2024, and on 12.07.2024, the Hon’ble High Court disposed of the writ petition as infructuous. In short, citing all such litigations, the Applicant submitted that, due to such litigations and interim protections, he could not proceed for a period of 35.5 months, and once the Hon’ble Higher Courts disposed of those matters, he promptly resumed the liquidation process and auctioned the properties. It is the case of the Applicant that the Liquidator cannot be penalised for the delay caused by the litigations and submitted that he is entitled to Rs. 1 lakh per month for a period of 35.5 months or, in the alternative, to the exclusion of the litigation period for the computation of the fee.


# 15. Before proceeding further, it would be appropriate to record that, in this matter, the total assets have been sold for Rs. 39.72 crore, for which a liquidation fee of Rs. 55,21,497/- has already been paid to the Applicant. Apart from this, the liquidation cost and the actual expenses incurred by the Liquidator in defending various litigations by engaging advocates, along with other incidental charges and expenses, have been paid separately by the stakeholders. It would be worth mentioning that the Liquidator is entitled to its fee in terms of Regulation 4 of the IBBI (Liquidation Process) Regulations, 2016 (“Liquidation Process Regulations”), which reads as under:

  • “(1) The fee payable to the liquidator shall be in accordance with the decision taken by the committee of creditors under regulation 39D of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (Insolvency Resolution Process for Corporate Persons) Regulations, 2016.
    (1A) Where no fee has been fixed under sub-regulation (1), the consultation committee may fix the fee of the liquidator in its first meeting.

  • (2) In cases other than those covered under sub-regulation (1) and (1A), the liquidator shall be entitled to a fee-

  • (a) at the same rate as the resolution professional was entitled to during the corporate insolvency resolution process, for the period of compromise or arrangement under section 230 of the Companies Act, 2013 (18 of 2013); and

  • (b) as a percentage of the amount realised net of other liquidation costs, and of the amount distributed, for the balance period of liquidation, as under:

  • Clarification: For the purposes of clause (b), it is hereby clarified that where a liquidator realises any amount, but does not distribute the same, he shall be entitled to a fee corresponding to the amount realised by him. Where a liquidator distributes any amount, which is not realised by him, he shall be entitled to a fee corresponding to the amount distributed by him.

  • (3) Where the fee is payable under clause (b) of sub-regulation (2), the liquidator shall be entitled to receive half of the fee payable on realisation only after such realised amount is distributed. Clarification: Regulation 4 of these regulations, as it stood before the commencement of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (Liquidation Process) (Amendment) Regulations, 2019 shall continue to be applicable in relation to the liquidation processes already commenced before the coming into force of the said amendment Regulations.”


# 16. The Liquidator is entitled to a fee in terms of the conditions stipulated in the relevant provisions and, in the present case, the fee has been agreed to be paid as per the percentage of assets realised and distributed under Regulation 4(2)(b) of the Liquidation Process Regulations. There is no dispute that the Liquidator has already received its remuneration and fee in terms of the said provisions. It is argued on behalf of Respondent No. 1 that the Liquidator issued a communication dated 23.12.2019 to Union Bank of India requesting that his fee be paid as per Regulation 4 of the Liquidation Process Regulations, 2016, and thereafter, upon negotiations, the Liquidator agreed to a revised amount. Therefore, the Applicant cannot renege on such arrangement. Both parties have submitted various judgments in support of their respective pleadings.


# 17. The Applicant has placed reliance on the decisions of the NCLT, Mumbai Bench in M/s. Shri Karvir Nivasini Mahalaxmi Ispat Pvt. Ltd. v. M/s. Abhishek Corporation Limited; the Hon’ble NCLAT in Bank of India v. Nithin Grains and Mills Private Limited, and the NCLT, Chandigarh Bench in Sanjay Kumar Aggarwal, Liquidator of M/s. Punjab Basmati Rice Ltd. (Under Liquidation) v. Canara Bank and Another, in support of the contention that the period excluded from liquidation on account of judicial orders ought to be excluded for the purpose of computation of the Liquidator’s fee or that the Liquidator should be granted remuneration for such excluded period. We have carefully considered the ratio laid down in the aforesaid decisions. However, on a careful examination of the factual matrix and the reliefs granted therein, we find that the same do not govern the controversy involved in the present application.


# 18. In M/s. Shri Karvir Nivasini Mahalaxmi Ispat Pvt. Ltd. (supra), the Adjudicating Authority was dealing with a liquidation process commenced prior to the amendment of the Liquidation Process Regulations, where no fee had been approved by the Committee of Creditors, and the Adjudicating Authority directed computation of the Liquidator’s remuneration after taking into account the periods specifically excluded by judicial orders, while also granting remuneration in view of the peculiar facts where the Corporate Debtor continued to be managed by the Liquidator during the excluded period. Likewise, in Bank of India v. Nithin Grains and Mills Private Limited (supra), the issue before the Hon’ble NCLAT was confined to the reasonableness of remuneration payable to an erstwhile Liquidator up to the date of handing over charge to the newly appointed Liquidator, and the Appellate Tribunal merely directed the Stakeholders’ Consultation Committee to consider and approve the remuneration claimed. Similarly, in Sanjay Kumar Aggarwal, Liquidator of M/s. Punjab Basmati Rice Ltd. (supra), the Adjudicating Authority was considering the effect of earlier judicial orders expressly excluding certain periods from the liquidation timeline and, relying upon the specific facts of that case and earlier precedents, directed exclusion of such periods for the limited purpose of computation of the fee slab under the applicable Regulations.


# 19. The factual and legal position in the present case stands on an entirely different footing. Here, the remuneration payable to the Applicant had already been settled and accepted in terms of Regulation 4 of the IBBI (Liquidation Process) Regulations, 2016, based on the percentage of assets realised and distributed, and the Applicant has admittedly received the entire fee payable under the agreed statutory mechanism. The present application does not arise out of any dispute regarding fixation or computation of the fee under the applicable Regulations, nor is there any prior judicial direction excluding the litigation period for the purpose of recalculating the fee. Rather, the Applicant seeks creation of an independent entitlement to additional remuneration for the period during which the liquidation proceedings remained affected by judicial proceedings and interim orders. None of the authorities relied upon by the Applicant lays down any proposition that a Liquidator, after having received the remuneration payable under the statutory framework, is entitled to claim additional monthly remuneration merely because the liquidation process remained pending on account of litigation or judicial stay. Accordingly, the aforesaid decisions are clearly distinguishable on facts as well as on the legal issues involved and do not advance the case of the Applicant.


# 20. The Respondents have, on the other hand, placed reliance upon the decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Glas Trust Company LLC v. BYJU Raveendran & Ors., the decisions of the NCLT, Guwahati Bench and the Hon’ble NCLAT in Kannan Tiruvengadam v. Assets Care & Reconstruction Enterprise Limited & Ors., the decision of the NCLT in Kantipudi Venkata Raju, Liquidator of Kaanha Shipping (P.) Ltd. v. Board of Visakhapatnam Port Authority, as well as the decisions in Union Bank of India v. Mindlogicx Infratec Ltd., Rajputana Constructions Pvt. Ltd. v. Rajasthan Land Holdings Ltd. & Ors., and IndusInd Bank Ltd. v. Rajendra K. Bhuta. We have carefully examined the aforesaid decisions. While the principles enunciated therein are well settled, we are of the considered view that the said decisions also do not conclusively govern the issue involved in the present application and are distinguishable on their own facts and the issues decided therein.


# 21. The decision of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Glas Trust Company LLC v. BYJU Raveendran & Ors. reiterates the settled principle that where a statute prescribes a particular procedure, the same must ordinarily be followed and the inherent powers of the Tribunal cannot be invoked to create a remedy inconsistent with the statutory framework. The said proposition is unexceptionable and has been duly kept in view while adjudicating the present application. However, the said judgment did not concern the determination of a Liquidator’s remuneration under Regulation 4 of the IBBI (Liquidation Process) Regulations, 2016, nor did it deal with the consequences of prolonged judicial intervention during liquidation proceedings. Similarly, the decisions in Kannan Tiruvengadam and Kantipudi Venkata Raju were rendered in the context of cases where the Committee of Creditors and the Stakeholders’ Consultation Committee had not fixed the Liquidator’s remuneration, and the Tribunals held that, in such circumstances, the Liquidator would be entitled only to the statutory fee contemplated under Regulation 4(2)(b). Those decisions were concerned with the mode of determination of the Liquidator’s fee in the absence of any prior fixation and not with a claim for additional remuneration after the statutory fee had already been determined and paid.


# 22. Likewise, the reliance placed on Union Bank of India v. Mindlogicx Infratec Ltd., Rajputana Constructions Pvt. Ltd. v. Rajasthan Land Holdings Ltd. & Ors., and IndusInd Bank Ltd. v. Rajendra K. Bhuta is also distinct. The issues arising in those cases pertained to the entitlement of an Interim Resolution Professional or Resolution Professional to claim fees during periods when the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process itself remained stayed or was subsequently set aside. The said decisions were rendered in the context of the statutory framework governing the Corporate Insolvency Resolution Process and not the liquidation process. The nature of duties, the statutory responsibilities, and the mechanism for payment of remuneration during CIRP are materially different from those governing liquidation under the Code.


# 23. Thus, although both the Applicant and the Respondents have relied upon various judicial precedents, this Adjudicating Authority is of the considered opinion that none of the case laws cited by either side directly addresses the issue arising in the present application, namely, whether a Liquidator, who has admittedly received the remuneration payable in accordance with Regulation 4 of the IBBI (Liquidation Process) Regulations, 2016, can thereafter claim an independent or additional remuneration solely on account of the liquidation proceedings having remained pending due to judicial proceedings and interim orders.


# 24. Having considered the rival contentions and upon thoughtful consideration of the issues involved, it is noticed that the Applicant, in the present application, has sought additional remuneration payable to the Liquidator for the period the liquidation process remained affected on account of prolonged litigation and judicial stay, at a rate equivalent to the minimum statutory fee payable to a Resolution Professional. Such a claim, however, finds no recognition under the statutory scheme of the IBC. This Adjudicating Authority is of the considered view that the remuneration of the Liquidator is not governed by equitable considerations alone but is governed by the statutory framework under the IBC, 2016, and the regulations framed thereunder. The delay in proceeding with the liquidation process on account of ongoing litigations and interim protection, if any, or extraordinary circumstances that arose due to the COVID-19 pandemic cannot, by itself, be attributed to any omission or negligence on the part of the Liquidator, but simultaneously, such circumstances do not automatically confer a legal right to claim enhancement of remuneration beyond the statutory scheme.


# 25. It is also relevant to note that, in the present case, the remuneration of the Liquidator was fixed by the Stakeholders’ Consultation Committee (SCC), at the request of the Liquidator himself, as part of the liquidation cost in terms of Regulation 4 of the IBBI (Liquidation Process) Regulations, 2016, and the Applicant has already received the fee so determined. Once the remuneration has been fixed and accepted under the statutory framework, the Liquidator is estopped from claiming any additional fee outside the framework of Regulation 4. The Legislature, in its wisdom, has provided a structured mechanism for determining the Liquidator’s remuneration with the object of ensuring that the liquidation process is completed in a time-bound manner while safeguarding the interests of all stakeholders at every stage. Therefore, any claim for additional remuneration beyond the fee already fixed under Regulation 4 is contrary to the statutory scheme and cannot be sustained.


# 26. The exclusion of any period for the purpose of computation of the time limit cannot invariably result in the alteration of remuneration unless the relevant governing provisions expressly contemplate such a consequence. In fact, if such a contention is accepted, the entire scheme and objective behind it would collapse. The scheme, as designed, is sufficient to prompt Resolution Professionals/Liquidators to participate in the proceedings and to take diligent steps for the expeditious and timely adjudication of matters by pursuing their interests before the competent courts. If we allow the exclusion of such periods, practically, the Resolution Professionals/Liquidators would cease to show interest in such litigations. In other words, such an interpretation would dilute the incentive for expeditious completion of the liquidation process and could discourage timely pursuit and disposal of pending proceedings affecting liquidation. The statutory framework is designed to encourage diligence and expedition on the part of the Liquidator while safeguarding the liquidation estate for the benefit of stakeholders. Therefore, on that ground also, the contentions of the Applicant are not acceptable.


# 27. Further, acceptance of such propositions would, in fact, amount to judicial interference with and modification of the statutory mechanism regulating the Liquidator’s fee. Such judicial intervention is impermissible in the absence of enabling provisions. Though it is correct that no person can be prejudiced by the act of the Court, such a principle certainly cannot be stretched to create a substantive monetary entitlement or be used to grant additional remuneration to the Applicant against the statutory scheme under the IBC. Further, if we allow the relief as claimed, it would unnecessarily burden the liquidation estate and ultimately impact the distributable assets available to the stakeholders, and such interference would be against the settled statutory scheme. As such, we find no merit in granting any such reliefs allegedly claimed by the Applicant in this application. The Applicant has already received Rs. 55,21,497/- in addition to the actual costs and other expenses, including legal fees paid by him in defending the litigations. Therefore, we find no merit in rewriting the statutory provisions at the instance of the Applicant.


# 28. In view of the above, IA(IBC)/248/KOB/2025 in IBA/240/CB/2019 stands dismissed.


# 29. The Registry is directed to send e-mail copies of this order forthwith to all the parties and their Ld. Counsel for information and for taking necessary steps.


# 30. A Certified Copy of this Order may be issued, if applied for, upon compliance with all requisite formalities.

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Wednesday, 9 September 2026

Venka Reddy Bathina (Liquidator) vs. Tapaas Chakravarti and Ors. - The Applicant has failed to establish, based on the material placed on record, that the transactions in question were carried out with intent to defraud the creditors or for any fraudulent purpose, or that the statutory requirements for directing contribution under Section 66(2) of the Code have been satisfied. Accordingly, no liability can be fastened upon the Respondents under Section 66 of the Code.

  NCLT Hyd. (2026.08.20) in Venka Reddy Bathina (Liquidator) vs. Tapaas Chakravarti and Ors. [(2026) ibclaw.in 3228 NCLT, I.A (IBC) No. 1272 of 2023 in C.P (IB) No. 402/07/HDB/2020] held that; 

  • The Hon’ble NCLAT (Chennai Bench) in the case of Regen Powertech Pvt. Ltd., represented by erstwhile RP Ebenezar Inbaraj v. M/s. Wind Construction Pvt. Ltd. (2022) ibclaw.in 793 NCLAT clarified that fraudulent trading requires a high degree of proof, and relevant facts and evidence must be presented unambiguously. The Applicant must provide tangible evidence to substantiate the claim of fraudulent intent.

  • In view of the above, we find that the Applicant has not established the requisite fraudulent intent in respect of the repayment of Rs.50,00,000/- to Mr. Tapaas Chakravarti. Accordingly, the said transaction cannot be held to constitute fraudulent trading or fraudulent conduct attracting Section 66 of the Code.

  • The observations of the Transaction Auditor may raise questions regarding the manner in which the entries were accounted for; however, in the absence of further corroborative material, they do not, by themselves, establish the fraudulent intent required for invoking Section 66 of the Code.

  • The Applicant has also failed to place sufficient material establishing that the said accounting treatment was undertaken with an intent to defraud the creditors of the Corporate Debtor. Hence, the allegation of a fraudulent transaction under Section 66 of the Code is not established.

  • In the absence of the underlying primary banking and contractual documents, the observations in the Transaction Audit Report, by themselves, do not establish that the aforesaid transactions were undertaken with fraudulent intent or that the funds were diverted or siphoned off. Apart from the Auditor’s observations and the subsequent winding-up of DQ Ireland, no material has been brought on record by the Applicant to demonstrate diversion of funds, wrongful gain to the Respondents, or corresponding wrongful loss to the creditors of the Corporate Debtor.

  • The mere fact that no proper explanation was provided for the write-offs does not, by itself, establish that the write-offs were fraudulent or that the funds were diverted or siphoned off. In the absence of documentary material establishing fraudulent intent or the ingredients of Section 66 of the Code, the allegation regarding the write-off of bad debts aggregating to Rs. 21.45 Lakhs is not established.

  • We further find that the Applicant has also failed to establish the ingredients of Section 66(2) of the Code. No sufficient material has been placed on record to establish that the Respondents knew or ought to have known that there was no reasonable prospect of avoiding insolvency of the Corporate Debtor, or that they failed to exercise due diligence with a view to minimising the potential loss to the creditors. Accordingly, the requirements of Section 66(2) of the Code are also not satisfied.

  • The Applicant has failed to establish, based on the material placed on record, that the transactions in question were carried out with intent to defraud the creditors or for any fraudulent purpose, or that the statutory requirements for directing contribution under Section 66(2) of the Code have been satisfied. Accordingly, no liability can be fastened upon the Respondents under Section 66 of the Code.

Excerpts of the Order

# 1. The present Interlocutory Application was originally filed by CS. Dr. Ahalada Rao Vummenthala, Resolution Professional of M/s. DQ Entertainment (International) Limited, under Section 66 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016. Subsequently, pursuant to the Order dated 11.06.2024 passed in I.A. (IBC) No. 1272 of 2023, Mr. Venka Reddy Bathina, Liquidator of M/s. DQ Entertainment (International) Limited, was substituted as the Applicant. The present Application is accordingly being prosecuted by the Applicant/Liquidator against Mr. Tapaas Chakravarti, Suspended Director of the Corporate Debtor; Mrs. Rashida Hatim Adenwala, Erstwhile Director of the Corporate Debtor; Mr. Srinivasaraghavan Sundar, Erstwhile Director of the Corporate Debtor; Mr. Goutam Auknoor, Erstwhile Director of the Corporate Debtor; and Mr. Sanjay Choudhary, Erstwhile Chief Financial Officer (KMP/CFO) of M/s. DQ Entertainment (International) Limited (hereinafter collectively referred to as the “Respondents”), seeking the following reliefs:

  • i) To pass an order directing the Respondents to make good the losses caused to the Creditors of the Corporate Debtor.

  • ii) To declare the following transactions, as mentioned in paragraph 12 of the Application filed by the Applicant, as fraudulent:

  • a) Loan repayment of Rs. 50 Lakhs was made to Mr. Tapaas Chakravarthy (Erstwhile Director and CEO) during the financial year 2017-18. However, the cash inflow from loan receipts was not clearly shown in the Corporate Debtor’s books of account. The management did not provide proper and satisfactory explanations for the above-said loan repayment.

  • b) During the financial year 2017-18, there were irregularities in the information provided by the management for addition to Intangible Assets of Rs. 225.24 Lakhs. Out of this, Rs. 171.05 Lakhs were transferred from Intangible Assets under Development, which was initially transferred from Debtor Ledger (Zagtoon SCRL). It was observed that there were no actual cash inflows and outflows; revenue was recognized in the previous years and subsequently transferred to assets, and corresponding depreciation was claimed. As informed by the Company, “the project will take around 36 months to 48 months from conceptualization to delivery. Until then, the same will be recognized as an Intangible Asset under Development. Later on, when the first delivery is done, the same will be moved to Intangible Assets.” However, the reason for recognizing revenue has not been explained by the erstwhile management of the Corporate Debtor.

  • c) Letter of Credit (LC) was invoked for an amount of Rs. 4,889.70 Lakhs on behalf of DQ Entertainment (Ireland) Limited, which is a subsidiary company, and subsequently converted into a loan during the financial year 2017-18. Thereafter, the said overseas subsidiary entity was reported as winding up, and the receiver was appointed in October 2019. The said act clearly indicates such conversion was with a mala fide and fraudulent intention to defraud the creditors and stakeholders.

  • d) Bad debts written off for an amount of Rs. 21.45 Lakhs related to Bangla TV for Rs. 12.63 Lakhs and Barinda Media Limited for an amount of Rs. 8.81 Lakhs. Upon further verification of the Debtor Ledgers, it was observed that, in the case of Bangla TV, the projects of Charlie Chaplin and RobintoorVuwa were 100% executed and the remaining balance was self-written off by the Company. In the case of Barinda Media Limited, the revenue was recognized for the Ironman Project, and the same was self-written off by the Company. When clarification was sought in this regard, no proper explanation was provided for these write-offs.

  • e) An amount of Rs. 602.43 Lakhs was transferred from Axis Bank Cash Credit Account to DQ Entertainment (Ireland) Limited during the financial year 2017-18. When clarification was sought from the management, no proper explanation for this transaction was provided. Thereafter, the said overseas subsidiary entity was reported as winding up, and the receiver was appointed in October 2019. The said act clearly indicates such transfer was with a mala fide and fraudulent intention to defraud Axis Bank Limited, other creditors and stakeholders.

  • iii) Direct the Respondent Nos. 1 to 5, the members of the suspended Board/Management of the Corporate Debtor, to contribute a sum of Rs. 57,34,63,000/- to the Corporate Debtor CIRP Account towards the transactions carried out under Section 66 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016.


CASE OF THE APPLICANT

# 2. The Applicant states that the Financial Creditor filed a petition under Section 7 of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 against the Corporate Debtor. It is averred that this Adjudicating Authority, vide order dated 17.06.2022 in CP (IB) No. 402/07/HDB/2020, admitted the petition, initiated CIRP and appointed Mr. Madhusudhan Rao Gonugunta as the Interim Resolution Professional. The Applicant further avers that the CoC, in its first meeting held on 16.07.2022, with 68.40% voting share, resolved to appoint the Applicant as the Resolution Professional. It is further stated that the CIRP period was extended from time to time.


# 3. The Applicant submits that, upon examining the books of account and records of the Corporate Debtor provided by the suspended management and available at its registered office, the Applicant formed an opinion that certain transactions required examination under Section 66 of the Code.


# 4. Pursuant to the decisions of the CoC taken in its meetings held on 26.09.2022 and 07.10.2022, the Resolution Professional appointed M/s. Sarath & Associates, Chartered Accountants, as the Transaction Auditor to examine the transactions of the Corporate Debtor for the period from 01.04.2017 to 17.06.2022 under Sections 43, 45, 50 and 66 of the Code.

5. It is the case of the Applicant that the conclusions, observations and comments of the Transaction Auditor, as contained in the Transaction Audit Report annexed as Annexure-1, along with the observations of the Resolution Professional based on the information furnished by the management of the Corporate Debtor, disclose, inter alia, loan repayment of Rs. 50 Lakhs to Mr. Tapaas Chakravarthy (Erstwhile Director and CEO) without proper explanation; irregularities in addition to intangible assets amounting to Rs. 225.24 Lakhs, including transfer of Rs. 171.05 Lakhs from Intangible Assets under Development and recognition of revenue without explanation; invocation of Letter of Credit amounting to Rs. 4,889.70 Lakhs in favour of DQ Entertainment (Ireland) Limited and its subsequent conversion into loan; write-off of bad debts amounting to Rs. 21.45 Lakhs; and transfer of Rs. 602.43 Lakhs from the Axis Bank Cash Credit Account to DQ Entertainment (Ireland) Limited, which, according to the Applicant, indicate fraudulent transactions intended to defraud the creditors and stakeholders.


# 6. The Applicant contends that the transactions identified in the Transaction Audit Report dated 12.06.2023 show that the affairs of the Corporate Debtor were not conducted in the normal course of business and that the Respondents failed to discharge their duties properly, resulting in fraudulent transactions intended to defraud the creditors. It is further contended that, based on the Transaction Audit Report and the supporting documents, the Applicant formed an opinion that the Respondents failed to exercise due diligence, siphoned off funds by advancing amounts to related parties, and carried out fraudulent transactions amounting to Rs. 57,34,63,000/-, thereby causing loss to the creditors and rendering themselves liable under Section 66(2) of the IBC to contribute the said amount to the Corporate Debtor and for appropriate action in accordance with law.


CASE OF THE RESPONDENT NOS. 1 & 2.

# 7. The Respondents contend that the Applicant has proceeded on false and misconceived facts. It is their case that the Transaction Audit Report dated 12.06.2023 prepared by M/s. Sarath & Associates, Chartered Accountants, for the period from 01.04.2017 to 17.06.2022, does not record any specific finding or observation classifying the impugned transactions as fraudulent under Section 66 of the IBC. It is further contended that the Applicant, on its own, classified the transactions as fraudulent and instituted the present Application on an erroneous factual narration with mala fide intentions.


# 8. The Respondents further submit that the present Application is devoid of substance as the requirements under Section 66 of the IBC, including formation of an opinion and determination supported by a concrete finding, have not been satisfied. It is contended that the allegations are based on assumptions and are unsupported by the Transaction Audit Report. Reliance has been placed on Svenska Handels Banken v. Indian Charge Chrome and Others, Anil Rishi v. Gurbaksh Singh, Mr. Anuj Bajpai, RP of Tollways (Ujjain) Pvt. Ltd. v. Surendra Lodha and Jayesh Sanghrajka v. Divine Investments to contend that allegations of fraud require unimpeachable evidence and that a forensic audit report must specifically classify the transactions as fraudulent under Section 66 of the IBC.


# 9. The Respondents contend that the Applicant failed to comply with Regulation 35A of the IBBI (Insolvency Resolution Process for Corporate Persons) Regulations, 2016, and that no mens rea has been established. It is further contended that the Application was filed only to harass the Respondents and cause reputational loss.


# 10. The Respondents attribute the financial difficulties of the Corporate Debtor to the global market slowdown, liquidity issues and the COVID-19 pandemic, which caused production delays, withdrawal of customer orders and eventual shutdown of operations. They submit that the management exercised due diligence to minimise losses and extended assistance to the Resolution Professional by facilitating access to the books of account, Tally data, passwords and other available records. Respondent No. 2 further states that, being a professional director, she was not involved in the day-to-day or financial affairs of the Corporate Debtor, and that although she responded to the queries of the Resolution Professional and sought an opportunity to interact with the Transaction Auditor, no such opportunity was provided.


# 11. The Respondents have specifically denied the allegation regarding repayment of Rs. 50,00,000/- to Mr. Tapaas Chakravarthy, Erstwhile Director and CEO, during the financial year 2017-18 as being contrary to the record, false and based on misconceived facts. It is their case that Respondent No. 1 had advanced loans to the Corporate Debtor from time to time to meet its working capital requirements and urgent business needs. According to the Respondents, against the outstanding loan of Rs. 2,02,78,056/- as on 01.04.2017, the Corporate Debtor repaid Rs. 50,00,000/-, while a sum of Rs. 1,73,75,934/- remained payable as on 31.03.2022, exclusive of accumulated salary dues of Rs. 2,47,00,000/-. It is, therefore, contended that the said transaction does not amount to a fraudulent transaction.


# 12. The Respondents have further denied the allegation of irregularities in the addition of Intangible Assets amounting to Rs. 225.24 Lakhs, including transfer of Rs. 171.05 Lakhs from Intangible Assets under Development, as false and baseless. It is their case that the accounts of the Corporate Debtor were duly audited by MSKA & Associates, Statutory Auditors, and that the accounting treatment had been explained by the management on several occasions.


# 13. According to the Respondents, under the co-production business model, the Corporate Debtor received consideration partly in cash and partly in the form of exclusive distribution rights, which were accounted for in accordance with Ind AS 38. It is further submitted that the projects generally took about 24 to 48 months from conceptualisation to delivery and, accordingly, the distribution rights were recognised as Intangible Assets under Development until completion of the project and thereafter transferred to Intangible Assets upon first delivery. Since a part of the consideration was received in the form of distribution rights, there was no corresponding cash inflow or outflow in respect thereof. Accordingly, the Respondents contend that the accounting treatment was in the ordinary course of business and does not constitute a transaction falling within the ambit of Section 66 of the IBC.


# 14. The Respondents submit that DQ Entertainment (Ireland) Limited was a wholly-owned subsidiary of the Corporate Debtor. The Corporate Debtor obtained Standby Letters of Credit (SBLCs) from its bankers for the development of its Intellectual Properties. These SBLCs were discounted by DQ Ireland to fund the production of animated television series including Lassie, Iron Man, Jungle Book and Peter Pan. The proceeds received by DQ Ireland upon discounting the SBLCs were remitted to the Corporate Debtor against invoices raised for production work carried out by the Corporate Debtor. From this arrangement, the Corporate Debtor earned revenue of approximately Rs. 18,000 lakhs during the period 2010–2019.


# 15. The Respondents further submit that trademark disputes, project changes, production delays, global market slowdown and liquidity issues delayed recoveries, resulting in invocation of the SBLCs. Upon invocation, the Corporate Debtor honoured the payments on behalf of DQ Ireland. The amounts so paid were recorded in the books of the Corporate Debtor through journal entries as loans receivable from DQ Ireland. The Letter of Credit amounting to Rs. 4,889.70 lakhs was accordingly reflected as a loan receivable during 2017-18. The ledger of these journal entries was placed on record to show that there was no actual outflow of funds. DQ Ireland was subsequently wound up in October 2019. The Respondents contend that the said accounting treatment was made in the ordinary course of the business arrangement between the Corporate Debtor and its subsidiary and was not undertaken with any mala fide or fraudulent intention to defraud the creditors or stakeholders.


# 16. Concerning the transfer of Rs.602.43 Lakhs from the Axis Bank Cash Credit Account to DQ Entertainment (Ireland) Limited, the Respondents submit that the said amount formed part of the larger SBLC/LC invocation transactions already explained. It represented the amount debited from the Corporate Debtor’s cash credit account towards payment arising from the Letters of Credit discounted by DQ Ireland. The Respondents contend that the transfer was made in the ordinary course of the inter-company business arrangement with its wholly owned subsidiary and was not undertaken with any mala fide or fraudulent intention to defraud the creditors or stakeholders. Accordingly, the said transaction does not fall within the scope of Section 66 of the Code.


# 17. The Respondents contend that the write-off of bad debts amounting to Rs. 21.45 Lakhs, comprising Rs. 12.63 Lakhs relating to Bangla TV and Rs. 8.81 Lakhs relating to Barind Media Limited, is borne out by the records, while specifically denying the allegation that no proper explanation was furnished for such write-offs. It is their case that the Corporate Debtor licensed its television productions to various television channels and digital media platforms and recognised revenue upon execution of the licence agreements in accordance with its revenue recognition policy.


# 18. According to the Respondents, the licence agreements were subsequently cancelled, resulting in the aforesaid write-offs. It is further submitted that Barind Media returned the Iron Man 1 tapes after inspection as they were in SD version and not in HD with a 5.1 channel track, while Bangla TV terminated the agreement after discontinuing its children’s programming segment. It is further contended that the write-off of Rs. 21.45 Lakhs constituted only 0.2% of the total revenue from operations of Rs. 9,586.04 Lakhs during the financial year 2017-18. Reliance has been placed on Venkatesan Sankaranarayanan, RP for RTIL Limited v. Nitin Shambhukumar Kasliwal & Ors. to contend that write-offs are an internal accounting procedure and that unsuccessful commercial decisions do not amount to fraudulent trading under Section 66 of the IBC.


# 19. The written submissions filed by Respondent Nos. 3 and 4, as well as the written submissions filed by Respondent Nos. 1 and 2, substantially reiterate the contentions already set out hereinabove in the counter of Respondent Nos. 1 and 2. Since the said contentions are substantially repetitive, the same are not being reproduced again for the sake of brevity. The submissions, to the extent relevant, shall be considered while dealing with the respective transactions.


FINDINGS AND DECISION

# 20. We have heard the Learned Counsel for the Applicant and Respondents and carefully perused the material and documents placed on record. Upon due consideration of the submissions and the material available on record, we proceed to examine the transactions in question.


# 21. The Corporate Debtor, M/s. DQ Entertainment (International) Limited, was admitted into CIRP vide order dated 17.06.2022 passed by this Adjudicating Authority in C.P. (IB) No. 402/07/HDB/2020, on a petition filed under Section 7 of the Code, and Mr. Madhusudhan Rao Gonugunta was appointed as the IRP. In the first meeting of the CoC held on 16.07.2022, Dr. Ahalada Rao Vummenthala was appointed as the RP of the Corporate Debtor. The CIRP period was thereafter extended from time to time.


# 22. The present Interlocutory Application was initially filed by CS. Dr. Ahalada Rao Vummenthala, Resolution Professional of the Corporate Debtor, under Section 66 of the Code. Subsequently, pursuant to the order dated 11.06.2024 passed in the present Interlocutory Application, Mr. Venka Reddy Bathina, Liquidator of the Corporate Debtor, was substituted as the Applicant. Accordingly, the present Application is being prosecuted by the Applicant/Liquidator against the Respondents herein.


# 23. The Applicant averred that, pursuant to the decisions of the CoC taken in its meetings held on 26.09.2022 and 07.10.2022, the RP appointed M/s. Sarath & Associates, Chartered Accountants, as the Transaction Auditor to conduct the transaction audit of the Corporate Debtor for the period from 01.04.2017 to 17.06.2022 and to examine the transactions falling under Sections 43, 45, 50 and 66 of the Code.


# 24. The questions that arise for consideration are: (i) whether the impugned transactions constitute fraudulent transactions within the meaning of Section 66 of the Code; and (ii) whether the Respondents are liable to contribute to the assets of the Corporate Debtor under Section 66 of the Code.


# 25. Before examining the rival submissions and the transactions in question, it is necessary to consider the scope of Section 66 of the IBC. Section 66 empowers the Adjudicating Authority, where it is established that the business of the Corporate Debtor has been carried on with the intent to defraud creditors or for any fraudulent purpose, to pass appropriate orders, including directing the persons who were knowingly parties to such conduct to make contributions to the assets of the Corporate Debtor.


# 26. To succeed in an application under Section 66 of the IBC, the Applicant is required to establish, by placing sufficient material on record, that the transactions in question were carried out with the intent to defraud creditors or for a fraudulent purpose. The burden lies upon the Applicant to place cogent material before the Adjudicating Authority to establish the ingredients of Section 66.


# 27. The following elements1 must be established under Section 66 of IBC:

  • I. Business of the Corporate Debtor has been carried out with an intent to defraud the creditors.

  • II. Directors participated in carrying on the business of the Corporate Debtor despite knowing the likely insolvency of the Corporate Debtor.


# 28. The Hon’ble NCLAT in the case of Regen Powertech Pvt. Ltd., represented by erstwhile RP Ebenezar Inbaraj v. M/s. Wind Construction Pvt. Ltd. (2022) ibclaw.in 793 NCLAT clarified that fraudulent trading requires a high degree of proof, and relevant facts and evidence must be presented unambiguously. The Applicant must provide tangible evidence to substantiate the claim of fraudulent intent. The Hon’ble Supreme Court, in Anuj Jain IRP for Jaypee Infratech Ltd. v. Axis Bank Ltd. [(2020) ibclaw.in 06 SC]2, emphasized the distinction between the elements of preferential, undervalued, and fraudulent transactions, noting that the inquiry for fraudulent trading is distinct from that of preferential and undervalued transactions. Specific material facts must be pleaded if a transaction is sought to be brought under the provisions of Sections 45/46/47 or Section 66 of the Code.


Repayment of Loan of Rs.50,00,000/- to Mr. Tapaas Chakravarthy (Erstwhile Director and CEO)

# 29. The Applicant contends that the Corporate Debtor repaid a sum of Rs.50,00,000/- to Mr. Tapaas Chakravarthy during the Financial Year 2017-18, without the corresponding cash inflow towards the alleged loan being clearly reflected in the books of account. It is further contended that the management failed to furnish a proper and satisfactory explanation for the said repayment. Based on the Transaction Audit Report dated 12.06.2023, the Applicant seeks examination of the said transaction under Section 66 of the Code.


# 30. Per contra, the Respondents admit the repayment of Rs.50,00,000/- to Respondent No.1 during the Financial Year 2017-18. It is their case that the amount represented part repayment of an unsecured loan advanced by Respondent No.1 to the Corporate Debtor from time to time towards its working capital requirements and urgent business needs. According to the Respondents, Rs.2,02,78,056/- was outstanding towards such loan as on 01.04.2017, against which the aforesaid amount was repaid.


# 31. We have considered the submissions advanced by the parties and perused the material available on record. The repayment of Rs.50,00,000/- is not in dispute, as the same has been expressly admitted by the Respondents. Therefore, the issue for consideration is whether the payment was made towards an existing loan liability or was undertaken with an intent to defraud the creditors or for any fraudulent purpose.


# 32. In support of their contention, the Respondents have relied upon Annexure-B, forming part of the audited financial statements of the Corporate Debtor for the Financial Year 2017-18 and containing the Related Party Disclosures. Under Note No.36, Mr. Tapaas Chakravarti is identified as the Managing Director and Chief Executive Officer. The disclosure records “Loan (re-paid)/taken – Managing Director & Chief Executive Officer” of Rs.50,00,000/- for the Financial Year 2017-18. It further records the loan taken from the Managing Director and Chief Executive Officer at Rs.2,02,78,056/- as on 31.03.2017 and Rs.1,52,78,056/- as on 31.03.2018.


# 33. The aforesaid entries in the audited financial statements correspond with the Respondents’ explanation that Rs.50,00,000/- was repaid against the outstanding loan liability during the relevant financial year. However, the Transaction Audit Report has questioned the corresponding cash inflow relating to the alleged loan and observed that the management had not furnished a proper and satisfactory explanation in that regard. Thus, while the financial statements record the loan transaction and its repayment, the records do not independently establish the actual movement of funds relating to the original advances.


# 34. The said deficiency, however, has to be considered in the context of the specific requirements of Section 66 of the Code. The mere absence of clear evidence regarding the original inflow, or the fact that the repayment was made to an erstwhile Director and Chief Executive Officer, does not by itself establish that the transaction was undertaken with an intent to defraud the creditors. For invoking Section 66, the fraudulent purpose or intent must be established from the material on record.


# 35. In the present case, apart from the observations contained in the Transaction Audit Report, no further material has been placed before us to establish that the loan liability was fictitious, that the repayment was a device for diversion of the Corporate Debtor’s funds, or that the payment was made pursuant to any fraudulent arrangement intended to prejudice the creditors.


# 36. In view of the above, we find that the Applicant has not established the requisite fraudulent intent in respect of the repayment of Rs.50,00,000/- to Mr. Tapaas Chakravarti. Accordingly, the said transaction cannot be held to constitute fraudulent trading or fraudulent conduct attracting Section 66 of the Code.


Addition to Intangible Assets of Rs.225.24 Lakhs, including transfer of Rs.171.05 Lakhs from Zagtoon SCRL Debtor Ledger.

# 37. The Applicant, relying upon the Transaction Audit Report dated 12.06.2023, contends that during the Financial Year 2017-18, the Corporate Debtor added Rs. 225.24 Lakhs to Intangible Assets, out of which Rs. 171.05 Lakhs was transferred from Intangible Assets under Development, which had earlier been transferred from the Debtor Ledger of Zagtoon SCRL. It is contended that there was no corresponding cash inflow or outflow and that revenue recognised in the earlier years was subsequently transferred to assets, on which depreciation was claimed. The Applicant, therefore, alleges that the said accounting treatment constituted a fraudulent transaction under Section 66 of the Code.


# 38. The Respondents have denied the allegation as false and baseless. They submit that the accounts of the Corporate Debtor were duly audited by MSKA & Associates and that the accounting treatment had been explained by the management. According to the Respondents, under the co-production model, consideration was received partly in cash and partly by way of exclusive distribution rights, which were recognised as Intangible Assets under Development during the project period and transferred to Intangible Assets upon first delivery, in accordance with the accounting treatment stated to be followed under Ind AS 38. Since a portion of the consideration was in the form of distribution rights, there was no corresponding cash inflow or outflow. The Respondents contend that the treatment was in the ordinary course of business and does not constitute a fraudulent transaction under Section 66 of the Code.


# 39. The Transaction Auditor, however, questioned the basis for recognition of the revenue in the earlier years and its subsequent transfer to Intangible Assets, and observed that the reason for such recognition had not been explained by the erstwhile management. The explanation subsequently furnished by the Respondents regarding the distribution rights does not, by itself, establish the precise accounting basis for the amounts in question. Further, neither side has placed sufficient independent documentary material to establish the complete accounting trail, including the basis for the addition of Rs. 225.24 Lakhs, the manner in which Rs. 171.05 Lakhs was transferred from the Zagtoon SCRL Debtor Ledger to Intangible Assets under Development and thereafter to Intangible Assets, and the dates of such transfers.


# 40. Upon consideration of the material placed on record, there is also no sufficient material, apart from the observations in the Transaction Audit Report, to establish the precise amount of depreciation claimed on the said Intangible Assets, the date from which such depreciation was charged, or the basis on which the corresponding revenue was recognised in the earlier years. In the absence of such material, we are not in a position to conclusively determine that the accounting treatment was fictitious or fraudulent. The observations of the Transaction Auditor may raise questions regarding the manner in which the entries were accounted for; however, in the absence of further corroborative material, they do not, by themselves, establish the fraudulent intent required for invoking Section 66 of the Code.


# 41. Accordingly, the accounting treatment relating to the addition of Rs. 225.24 Lakhs to Intangible Assets, including the transfer of Rs. 171.05 Lakhs originating from the Zagtoon SCRL Debtor Ledger, remains insufficiently substantiated on the material available on record. However, the Applicant has also failed to place sufficient material establishing that the said accounting treatment was undertaken with an intent to defraud the creditors of the Corporate Debtor. Hence, the allegation of a fraudulent transaction under Section 66 of the Code is not established.


Transactions relating to DQ Entertainment (Ireland) Limited – Invocation of Letter of Credit of Rs. 4,889.70 Lakhs and Transfer of Rs. 602.43 Lakhs from Axis Bank Cash Credit Account to DQ Entertainment (Ireland) Limited.

# 42. The Applicant contends that during FY 2017-18, the Corporate Debtor had obtained a Letter of Credit amounting to Rs. 4,889.70 lakhs, which was utilised on behalf of DQ Entertainment (Ireland) Limited (“DQ Ireland”). Upon invocation of the Letter of Credit, the Corporate Debtor discharged the liability towards the discounting banks, and the amounts so paid were thereafter recorded in the books of the Corporate Debtor as a loan receivable from DQ Ireland. It is further contended that an amount of Rs. 602.43 lakhs was transferred from the Axis Bank Cash Credit Account to DQ Entertainment (Ireland) Limited. The Applicant relies upon the subsequent winding up of DQ Entertainment (Ireland) Limited and appointment of a receiver in October 2019 and contends that the aforesaid transactions were undertaken with a mala fide and fraudulent intention to defraud the creditors and stakeholders.


# 43. The Respondents contend that the transactions arose in the ordinary course of the business arrangements between the Corporate Debtor and its wholly-owned subsidiary, DQ Entertainment (Ireland) Limited. It is stated that the Corporate Debtor had obtained SBLC facilities from banks, which were discounted by DQ Ireland for financing the production of animated television series. Due to delays in the projects, trademark issues and difficulties in recovery of production costs, the SBLCs were devolved, and the issuing bank honoured the payments on behalf of DQ Ireland, which were thereafter recorded as loans receivable from DQ Ireland in the books of the Corporate Debtor. The Respondents further contend that the amount transferred through the Axis Bank Cash Credit Account formed part of the same business and banking arrangements and deny any fraudulent or mala fide intention.


# 44. Upon consideration of the material on record, we find that the Transaction Audit Report records both the invocation of the Letter of Credit / SBLC of Rs. 4,889.70 lakhs and the transfer of Rs. 602.43 lakhs from the Axis Bank Cash Credit Account to DQ Entertainment (Ireland) Limited. The Respondents have placed on record ledger extracts recording the amounts paid upon invocation as loans receivable from DQ Ireland. However, neither the Applicant nor the Respondents have placed before this Tribunal the underlying Letter of Credit / SBLC documents, formal records evidencing their invocation by the banks, the relevant bank statements, or any inter-company loan agreement or confirmation establishing the nature and purpose of the aforesaid transactions. Further, the Transaction Audit Report specifically records that no proper explanation was provided by the management in respect of the transfer of Rs. 602.43 lakhs.


# 45. In the absence of the underlying primary banking and contractual documents, the observations in the Transaction Audit Report, by themselves, do not establish that the aforesaid transactions were undertaken with fraudulent intent or that the funds were diverted or siphoned off. Apart from the Auditor’s observations and the subsequent winding-up of DQ Ireland, no material has been brought on record by the Applicant to demonstrate diversion of funds, wrongful gain to the Respondents, or corresponding wrongful loss to the creditors of the Corporate Debtor. Accordingly, while the transactions may raise questions requiring further scrutiny, the material presently available falls short of establishing the fraudulent intent required under Section 66 of the Code. The allegations in respect of the invocation of the Letter of Credit of Rs. 4,889.70 lakhs and the transfer of Rs. 602.43 lakhs from the Axis Bank Cash Credit Account are, therefore, not established.


Write-off of Bad Debts of Rs. 21.45 Lakhs relating to Bangla TV and Barinda Media Limited.

# 46. The Applicant contends that bad debts amounting to Rs. 21.45 Lakhs, comprising Rs. 12.63 Lakhs relating to Bangla TV and Rs. 8.81 Lakhs relating to Barinda Media Limited, were written off by the Corporate Debtor. The Applicant relies upon the observations of the Transaction Auditor, who recorded that, upon verification of the Debtor Ledgers, the projects relating to Bangla TV had been fully executed, and the remaining balance was self-written off by the Company, while the revenue relating to the Ironman project of Barinda Media Limited was also self-written off. The Transaction Auditor further recorded that no proper explanation was provided when clarification was sought regarding the said write-offs.


# 47. The Respondents contend that the write-off of the aforesaid bad debts was on account of the subsequent cancellation of the respective licence arrangements. It is stated that revenue had initially been recognised in accordance with the Corporate Debtor’s revenue recognition policy and that the amounts were subsequently written off upon cancellation of the agreements. The Respondents deny that the write-offs were effected with any fraudulent or mala fide intention.


# 48. Although the Transaction Auditor states that the Debtor Ledgers were verified in respect of the aforesaid write-offs, the said Debtor Ledgers and the underlying supporting documents have not been placed before this Tribunal. Consequently, the circumstances leading to the write-offs and the basis thereof cannot be independently verified from the material available on record.


# 49. The mere fact that no proper explanation was provided for the write-offs does not, by itself, establish that the write-offs were fraudulent or that the funds were diverted or siphoned off. In the absence of documentary material establishing fraudulent intent or the ingredients of Section 66 of the Code, the allegation regarding the write-off of bad debts aggregating to Rs. 21.45 Lakhs is not established.


# 50. We further find that the Applicant has also failed to establish the ingredients of Section 66(2) of the Code. No sufficient material has been placed on record to establish that the Respondents knew or ought to have known that there was no reasonable prospect of avoiding insolvency of the Corporate Debtor, or that they failed to exercise due diligence with a view to minimising the potential loss to the creditors. Accordingly, the requirements of Section 66(2) of the Code are also not satisfied.


# 51. In view of the foregoing discussion, the Applicant has failed to establish, based on the material placed on record, that the transactions in question were carried out with intent to defraud the creditors or for any fraudulent purpose, or that the statutory requirements for directing contribution under Section 66(2) of the Code have been satisfied. Accordingly, no liability can be fastened upon the Respondents under Section 66 of the Code.

Accordingly, I.A. IBC No.1272 of 2023 stands dismissed.

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The sole purpose of this post is to create awareness on the "IBC - Case Law" and to provide synopsis of the concerned case law, must not be used as a guide for taking or recommending any action or decision. A reader must refer to the full citation of the order & do one's own research and seek professional advice if he intends to take any action or decision in the matters covered in this post.